Jharkhand Board Class 12th 500+ MCQS
500 Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) along with their answers for Class 12
1. Which of the following is the powerhouse of the cell?
a) Mitochondria
b) Nucleus
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Ribosomes
Answer: a) Mitochondria
2. The process of converting glucose into pyruvate is known as:
a) Photosynthesis
b) Glycolysis
c) Fermentation
d) Cellular respiration
Answer: b) Glycolysis
3. Which of the following is an example of a biotic factor in an ecosystem?
a) Temperature
b) Soil
c) Plants
d) Rainfall
Answer: c) Plants
4. In Mendel’s experiment, the F1 generation was obtained by crossing:
a) Two pure-bred tall plants
b) Two pure-bred short plants
c) A tall and a short plant
d) Two hybrid plants
Answer: c) A tall and a short plant
5. The enzyme responsible for DNA replication is:
a) RNA polymerase
b) DNA ligase
c) DNA polymerase
d) Helicase
Answer: c) DNA polymerase
6. Which of the following is not a type of connective tissue?
a) Blood
b) Cartilage
c) Bone
d) Muscle
Answer: d) Muscle
7. Which hormone regulates the process of ovulation in females?
a) Progesterone
b) Estrogen
c) Luteinizing hormone
d) Follicle-stimulating hormone
Answer: c) Luteinizing hormone
8. The process of photosynthesis takes place in:
a) Mitochondria
b) Chloroplasts
c) Nucleus
d) Ribosomes
Answer: b) Chloroplasts
9. The DNA sequence is read in groups of:
a) Two bases
b) Three bases
c) Four bases
d) One base
Answer: b) Three bases
10. The site of fertilization in humans is:
a) Ovary
b) Fallopian tube
c) Uterus
d) Vagina
Answer: b) Fallopian tube
11. The blood group of a person with genotype IAIA is:
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: a) A
12. Which of the following is an autotrophic organism?
a) Human
b) Green plants
c) Fungi
d) Animals
Answer: b) Green plants
13. The process of aging is primarily regulated by:
a) DNA damage
b) Hormonal changes
c) Cell death
d) Environmental factors
Answer: a) DNA damage
14. The exchange of gases in the lungs occurs through:
a) Active transport
b) Osmosis
c) Diffusion
d) Facilitated diffusion
Answer: c) Diffusion
15. The scientist who proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection is:
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Gregor Mendel
c) Charles Darwin
d) Alfred Wallace
Answer: c) Charles Darwin
16. The part of the brain responsible for controlling body temperature is:
a) Medulla oblongata
b) Cerebellum
c) Hypothalamus
d) Cerebrum
Answer: c) Hypothalamus
17. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of DNA?
a) It is a double-stranded helix
b) It is single-stranded
c) It contains uracil
d) It is made up of amino acids
Answer: a) It is a double-stranded helix
18. Which of the following is the primary site for digestion of proteins?
a) Mouth
b) Stomach
c) Small intestine
d) Large intestine
Answer: b) Stomach
19. The theory that proposes that all living organisms are composed of cells is known as:
a) Cell theory
b) Evolution theory
c) Germ theory
d) Endosymbiotic theory
Answer: a) Cell theory
20. The process by which plants lose water through small pores in their leaves is called:
a) Transpiration
b) Respiration
c) Evaporation
d) Photosynthesis
Answer: a) Transpiration
Here are the next 20 MCQs for Class 12 Jharkhand Board Biology:
21. The process by which an organism produces offspring by cloning itself is known as:
a) Sexual reproduction
b) Asexual reproduction
c) Budding
d) Regeneration
Answer: b) Asexual reproduction
22. Which of the following is an example of a non-vascular plant?
a) Pine tree
b) Fern
c) Moss
d) Oak tree
Answer: c) Moss
23. The most important feature of meiosis is:
a) Production of genetically identical cells
b) Reduction in chromosome number
c) Production of somatic cells
d) Formation of haploid gametes
Answer: b) Reduction in chromosome number
24. Which of the following is true about the process of osmosis?
a) It requires energy
b) It involves the movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane
c) It moves water against the concentration gradient
d) It is a type of active transport
Answer: b) It involves the movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane
25. Which of the following is a nitrogen-fixing bacterium?
a) Rhizobium
b) Escherichia
c) Lactobacillus
d) Staphylococcus
Answer: a) Rhizobium
26. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the cardiac cycle?
a) Atrial contraction → Ventricular contraction → Ventricular relaxation → Atrial relaxation
b) Ventricular relaxation → Atrial contraction → Ventricular contraction → Atrial relaxation
c) Atrial contraction → Ventricular relaxation → Atrial relaxation → Ventricular contraction
d) Ventricular contraction → Atrial contraction → Atrial relaxation → Ventricular relaxation
Answer: a) Atrial contraction → Ventricular contraction → Ventricular relaxation → Atrial relaxation
27. Which of the following diseases is caused by a retrovirus?
a) Tuberculosis
b) AIDS
c) Malaria
d) Hepatitis
Answer: b) AIDS
28. Which of the following is a feature of prokaryotic cells?
a) Presence of a nucleus
b) Presence of membrane-bound organelles
c) Presence of a cell wall
d) Presence of a cytoskeleton
Answer: c) Presence of a cell wall
29. The role of the enzyme amylase is to break down:
a) Proteins
b) Carbohydrates
c) Lipids
d) Nucleic acids
Answer: b) Carbohydrates
30. The human heart consists of how many chambers?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: c) 4
31. Which of the following hormones is responsible for the regulation of water balance in the human body?
a) Insulin
b) Thyroxine
c) Antidiuretic hormone
d) Estrogen
Answer: c) Antidiuretic hormone
32. Which of the following is the process by which the DNA sequence is copied into an RNA sequence?
a) Replication
b) Transcription
c) Translation
d) Transduction
Answer: b) Transcription
33. In human blood, the blood cells responsible for immunity are:
a) Red blood cells
b) White blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Plasma
Answer: b) White blood cells
34. In the human circulatory system, which of the following is responsible for carrying oxygenated blood to the body?
a) Pulmonary veins
b) Aorta
c) Pulmonary arteries
d) Vena cava
Answer: b) Aorta
35. The primary function of the large intestine is:
a) Digestion of food
b) Absorption of water and salts
c) Secretion of digestive enzymes
d) Absorption of nutrients
Answer: b) Absorption of water and salts
36. Which of the following is a major function of the liver?
a) Production of insulin
b) Regulation of blood sugar levels
c) Secretion of bile
d) Storage of oxygen
Answer: c) Secretion of bile
37. The term "endosperm" refers to:
a) The outer layer of a seed
b) The embryo in a seed
c) The storage tissue in seeds
d) The seed coat
Answer: c) The storage tissue in seeds
38. Which of the following is a characteristic of viruses?
a) They can be seen with a light microscope
b) They are made of cells
c) They cannot reproduce on their own
d) They have a nucleus
Answer: c) They cannot reproduce on their own
39. The process of removing waste products from the body is called:
a) Respiration
b) Excretion
c) Digestion
d) Circulation
Answer: b) Excretion
40. Which of the following is a component of the human respiratory system?
a) Heart
b) Stomach
c) Lungs
d) Kidneys
Answer: c) Lungs
Here are the next 20 MCQs for Class 12 Jharkhand Board Biology:
41. Which of the following vitamins is required for the synthesis of collagen?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin E
Answer: b) Vitamin C
42. The genetic material of a virus is found in the:
a) Capsid
b) Cytoplasm
c) Nucleus
d) Nucleoid
Answer: a) Capsid
43. The process by which plants synthesize their food is called:
a) Digestion
b) Photosynthesis
c) Respiration
d) Transpiration
Answer: b) Photosynthesis
44. Which of the following is the largest gland in the human body?
a) Pancreas
b) Liver
c) Thyroid
d) Adrenal
Answer: b) Liver
45. The structural unit of the kidney is known as:
a) Neuron
b) Nephron
c) Glomerulus
d) Glomerular capsule
Answer: b) Nephron
46. Which of the following is a component of the plasma membrane?
a) Phospholipids
b) Mitochondria
c) Chloroplasts
d) Ribosomes
Answer: a) Phospholipids
47. The enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide in the body is:
a) Amylase
b) Catalase
c) Lipase
d) Pepsin
Answer: b) Catalase
48. Which of the following is responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood?
a) White blood cells
b) Red blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Plasma
Answer: b) Red blood cells
49. The part of the brain that controls balance and coordination is the:
a) Cerebellum
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Cerebrum
d) Hypothalamus
Answer: a) Cerebellum
50. In humans, the male gamete is called:
a) Oocyte
b) Zygote
c) Sperm
d) Ovum
Answer: c) Sperm
51. Which of the following is a characteristic of asexual reproduction?
a) Involves two parents
b) Genetic variation occurs
c) Involves the fusion of gametes
d) Involves only one parent
Answer: d) Involves only one parent
52. Which of the following diseases is caused by a bacterial infection?
a) Tuberculosis
b) Malaria
c) Influenza
d) Smallpox
Answer: a) Tuberculosis
53. The process by which the body converts food into energy is called:
a) Metabolism
b) Digestion
c) Respiration
d) Photosynthesis
Answer: a) Metabolism
54. The structure responsible for protein synthesis in the cell is:
a) Mitochondrion
b) Ribosome
c) Nucleus
d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: b) Ribosome
55. Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system?
a) Circulating oxygen
b) Regulating blood sugar
c) Fighting infections
d) Regulating body temperature
Answer: c) Fighting infections
56. The process of formation of blood cells is known as:
a) Hemostasis
b) Hematopoiesis
c) Hemolysis
d) Hemorrhage
Answer: b) Hematopoiesis
57. Which of the following is the primary function of the spleen?
a) Production of red blood cells
b) Filtering blood and removing old red blood cells
c) Regulating blood sugar
d) Synthesizing insulin
Answer: b) Filtering blood and removing old red blood cells
58. In humans, which of the following is the first organ to develop?
a) Heart
b) Brain
c) Liver
d) Lungs
Answer: a) Heart
59. The process of protein synthesis occurs in:
a) Mitochondria
b) Ribosomes
c) Nucleus
d) Golgi apparatus
Answer: b) Ribosomes
60. The enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of starch into sugars is:
a) Amylase
b) Lactase
c) Pepsin
d) Lipase
Answer: a) Amylase
Here are the next 20 MCQs for Class 12 Jharkhand Board Biology:
61. Which of the following is the main function of the human skeletal system?
a) Producing hormones
b) Circulating blood
c) Providing structure and support
d) Producing digestive enzymes
Answer: c) Providing structure and support
62. Which of the following is not a function of the pancreas?
a) Secretion of insulin
b) Secretion of glucagon
c) Secretion of digestive enzymes
d) Production of red blood cells
Answer: d) Production of red blood cells
63. The hormone responsible for regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins is:
a) Insulin
b) Thyroxine
c) Cortisol
d) Growth hormone
Answer: b) Thyroxine
64. In the process of photosynthesis, the light-dependent reactions occur in:
a) Stroma
b) Thylakoid membrane
c) Cytoplasm
d) Mitochondria
Answer: b) Thylakoid membrane
65. Which of the following is the main product of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
a) Oxygen
b) Glucose
c) ATP
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: c) ATP
66. The process of fertilization in humans occurs in the:
a) Ovary
b) Uterus
c) Fallopian tube
d) Vagina
Answer: c) Fallopian tube
67. Which of the following is a feature of the respiratory system?
a) Alveoli
b) Nephrons
c) Bronchioles
d) Both a and c
Answer: d) Both a and c
68. Which type of cell division results in two genetically identical daughter cells?
a) Meiosis
b) Mitosis
c) Binary fission
d) Both b and c
Answer: b) Mitosis
69. The process of phagocytosis is carried out by:
a) White blood cells
b) Red blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Epithelial cells
Answer: a) White blood cells
70. Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?
a) Protein synthesis
b) Modification and packaging of proteins
c) Breakdown of fatty acids
d) Energy production
Answer: b) Modification and packaging of proteins
71. The fluid that is responsible for cushioning and protecting the fetus during pregnancy is called:
a) Blood plasma
b) Amniotic fluid
c) Lymph
d) Synovial fluid
Answer: b) Amniotic fluid
72. Which of the following is the correct order of stages in the menstrual cycle?
a) Menstruation → Ovulation → Follicular phase → Luteal phase
b) Follicular phase → Ovulation → Luteal phase → Menstruation
c) Ovulation → Luteal phase → Follicular phase → Menstruation
d) Luteal phase → Menstruation → Follicular phase → Ovulation
Answer: b) Follicular phase → Ovulation → Luteal phase → Menstruation
73. Which of the following is a common characteristic of both plant and animal cells?
a) Chloroplasts
b) Cell wall
c) Mitochondria
d) Central vacuole
Answer: c) Mitochondria
74. Which of the following is not a function of proteins?
a) Enzyme activity
b) DNA replication
c) Storage of energy
d) Cell signaling
Answer: c) Storage of energy
75. In the human digestive system, bile is produced by the:
a) Stomach
b) Pancreas
c) Liver
d) Gallbladder
Answer: c) Liver
76. Which of the following is the primary function of red blood cells?
a) Fighting infections
b) Carrying oxygen
c) Clotting blood
d) Producing hormones
Answer: b) Carrying oxygen
77. Which of the following hormones is responsible for milk production in females?
a) Prolactin
b) Oxytocin
c) Estrogen
d) Progesterone
Answer: a) Prolactin
78. In which organ does the process of urine formation begin?
a) Kidney
b) Bladder
c) Ureter
d) Liver
Answer: a) Kidney
79. The primary function of the lymphatic system is to:
a) Transport oxygen
b) Transport lymph
c) Regulate body temperature
d) Circulate blood
Answer: b) Transport lymph
80. Which of the following is an example of an excretory product in humans?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Urea
c) Oxygen
d) Glucose
Answer: b) Urea
Here are the next 20 MCQs for Class 12 Jharkhand Board Biology:
81. The smallest unit of heredity is:
a) Gene
b) Chromosome
c) DNA
d) Nucleotide
Answer: a) Gene
82. The process by which mRNA is decoded to form proteins is called:
a) Replication
b) Transcription
c) Translation
d) Transduction
Answer: c) Translation
83. Which of the following is a major component of the cell membrane?
a) Proteins
b) Carbohydrates
c) Phospholipids
d) Nucleic acids
Answer: c) Phospholipids
84. The primary function of white blood cells is:
a) Oxygen transport
b) Blood clotting
c) Immune response
d) Nutrient transport
Answer: c) Immune response
85. The process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy is called:
a) Respiration
b) Photosynthesis
c) Fermentation
d) Transpiration
Answer: b) Photosynthesis
86. Which of the following statements about mitochondria is true?
a) Mitochondria are only found in plant cells.
b) Mitochondria produce oxygen.
c) Mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration.
d) Mitochondria are part of the endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: c) Mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration.
87. The process of nuclear division in which two identical daughter cells are produced is called:
a) Meiosis
b) Mitosis
c) Binary fission
d) Germination
Answer: b) Mitosis
88. Which of the following is a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
a) Protein synthesis
b) Lipid synthesis
c) Energy production
d) DNA replication
Answer: b) Lipid synthesis
89. Which of the following organisms can perform nitrogen fixation?
a) Fungi
b) Bacteria
c) Protozoa
d) Algae
Answer: b) Bacteria
90. Which of the following glands is responsible for secreting insulin?
a) Adrenal gland
b) Thyroid gland
c) Pituitary gland
d) Pancreas
Answer: d) Pancreas
91. The pigment responsible for the green color in plants is:
a) Carotene
b) Chlorophyll
c) Xanthophyll
d) Anthocyanin
Answer: b) Chlorophyll
92. The scientist who is known for the discovery of the cell is:
a) Charles Darwin
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Robert Hooke
d) Gregor Mendel
Answer: c) Robert Hooke
93. The human body has how many pairs of chromosomes?
a) 22
b) 23
c) 46
d) 92
Answer: b) 23
94. Which of the following is the correct function of the ribosome?
a) DNA replication
b) Protein synthesis
c) Lipid synthesis
d) Cellular respiration
Answer: b) Protein synthesis
95. Which of the following is true about the process of osmosis?
a) It requires energy
b) It involves the movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane
c) It moves water from lower to higher concentration
d) It is a type of active transport
Answer: b) It involves the movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane
96. The fluid-filled space surrounding the heart is known as the:
a) Pericardium
b) Endocardium
c) Myocardium
d) Epicardium
Answer: a) Pericardium
97. The primary function of the digestive system is:
a) Absorption of nutrients
b) Regulation of blood sugar
c) Elimination of waste
d) Circulation of oxygen
Answer: a) Absorption of nutrients
98. Which of the following is not a function of the circulatory system?
a) Transport of oxygen
b) Transport of nutrients
c) Regulation of body temperature
d) Protein synthesis
Answer: d) Protein synthesis
99. Which of the following is the correct order of events in the process of protein synthesis?
a) Transcription → Translation → Replication
b) Replication → Transcription → Translation
c) Translation → Transcription → Replication
d) Transcription → Replication → Translation
Answer: b) Replication → Transcription → Translation
100. The gene responsible for determining the sex of a human is located on:
a) Chromosome 1
b) Chromosome 23
c) Chromosome 12
d) Chromosome 21
Answer: b) Chromosome 23
This completes the set of 100 MCQs.
CHAPTER WISE MCQS QUESTION ANSWER JHARKHAND BOARD CLASS 12
CHAPTER 1
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants for Class 12 Biology:
1. The male gametes in flowering plants are:
a) Pollen grains
b) Ovules
c) Stamens
d) Anthers
Answer: a) Pollen grains
2. Which part of the flower produces pollen grains?
a) Stigma
b) Anther
c) Style
d) Ovary
Answer: b) Anther
3. The process by which pollen grains are transferred from the anther to the stigma is called:
a) Fertilization
b) Pollination
c) Germination
d) Fertilization
Answer: b) Pollination
4. Which of the following is a method of pollination in plants?
a) Wind
b) Water
c) Insects
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
5. The part of the flower that receives pollen is the:
a) Ovary
b) Stigma
c) Style
d) Anther
Answer: b) Stigma
6. The female gametes in flowering plants are:
a) Pollen grains
b) Ovules
c) Stamens
d) Petals
Answer: b) Ovules
7. The fertilized egg cell in a flower develops into:
a) A fruit
b) A seed
c) A stem
d) A root
Answer: b) A seed
8. The fusion of male and female gametes in plants is called:
a) Germination
b) Fertilization
c) Pollination
d) Meiosis
Answer: b) Fertilization
9. After fertilization, the ovule develops into:
a) Seed
b) Fruit
c) Leaf
d) Flower
Answer: a) Seed
10. The process of double fertilization occurs in:
a) Animals
b) Birds
c) Flowering plants
d) Reptiles
Answer: c) Flowering plants
11. In double fertilization, one male gamete fuses with:
a) Egg cell
b) Endosperm cell
c) Both egg and polar nuclei
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Egg cell
12. The other male gamete in double fertilization fuses with:
a) Egg cell
b) Polar nuclei
c) Ovule
d) Stigma
Answer: b) Polar nuclei
13. The structure that connects the ovary to the stigma in a flower is:
a) Style
b) Pedicel
c) Ovule
d) Anther
Answer: a) Style
14. Which part of the plant develops into the seed?
a) Stigma
b) Ovary
c) Ovule
d) Style
Answer: c) Ovule
15. In the process of pollination, pollen is transferred from the ______ to the stigma.
a) Ovule
b) Anther
c) Style
d) Sepal
Answer: b) Anther
16. What is the role of the pollen tube in fertilization?
a) To carry the sperm to the egg
b) To protect the ovule
c) To produce pollen grains
d) To carry water to the ovary
Answer: a) To carry the sperm to the egg
17. The development of a seed from a fertilized egg cell is called:
a) Pollination
b) Germination
c) Embryogenesis
d) Fertilization
Answer: c) Embryogenesis
18. The outer covering of the seed is called:
a) Endosperm
b) Seed coat
c) Cotyledons
d) Zygote
Answer: b) Seed coat
19. In a flower, the male reproductive organ is the:
a) Stigma
b) Pistil
c) Anther
d) Stamen
Answer: d) Stamen
20. Which of the following is not a method of pollination?
a) Wind
b) Water
c) Birds
d) Transpiration
Answer: d) Transpiration
---
CHAPTER 2
Human Reproduction" for Class 12 Biology:
1. The male reproductive organ responsible for the production of sperm is:
a) Urethra
b) Testes
c) Prostate
d) Penis
Answer: b) Testes
2. The female reproductive organ where fertilization occurs is:
a) Ovary
b) Uterus
c) Fallopian tube
d) Vagina
Answer: c) Fallopian tube
3. The release of an egg from the ovary is called:
a) Menstruation
b) Ovulation
c) Fertilization
d) Gestation
Answer: b) Ovulation
4. The female gamete is:
a) Sperm
b) Egg (Ovum)
c) Zygote
d) Embryo
Answer: b) Egg (Ovum)
5. The structure that carries sperm from the testes to the urethra is called:
a) Vas deferens
b) Epididymis
c) Seminal vesicle
d) Urethra
Answer: a) Vas deferens
6. The primary function of the prostate gland is to:
a) Secrete sperm
b) Secrete seminal fluid
c) Nourish the egg
d) Produce eggs
Answer: b) Secrete seminal fluid
7. The process of sperm formation is called:
a) Spermatogenesis
b) Oogenesis
c) Ovulation
d) Fertilization
Answer: a) Spermatogenesis
8. The female reproductive system consists of:
a) Ovaries
b) Fallopian tubes
c) Uterus
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
9. The region in the sperm that contains enzymes to help penetrate the egg is called the:
a) Head
b) Tail
c) Acrosome
d) Midpiece
Answer: c) Acrosome
10. Which of the following is responsible for the nourishment of the embryo during pregnancy?
a) Amniotic sac
b) Placenta
c) Uterus
d) Ovary
Answer: b) Placenta
11. The female reproductive organ where the embryo develops is:
a) Ovary
b) Fallopian tube
c) Uterus
d) Vagina
Answer: c) Uterus
12. The first stage of embryonic development after fertilization is:
a) Blastocyst
b) Zygote
c) Morula
d) Embryo
Answer: b) Zygote
13. The release of an egg from the ovary is triggered by:
a) Progesterone
b) Estrogen
c) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
d) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Answer: c) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
14. The structure that surrounds and protects the developing fetus is called the:
a) Amniotic sac
b) Placenta
c) Zygote
d) Follicle
Answer: a) Amniotic sac
15. The condition where the fertilized egg attaches outside the uterus is known as:
a) Ectopic pregnancy
b) Miscarriage
c) Tubal ligation
d) Placental abruption
Answer: a) Ectopic pregnancy
16. The hormone responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics in females is:
a) Estrogen
b) Testosterone
c) Progesterone
d) Luteinizing hormone
Answer: a) Estrogen
17. During which phase of the menstrual cycle does ovulation occur?
a) Menstrual phase
b) Follicular phase
c) Luteal phase
d) Ovulatory phase
Answer: d) Ovulatory phase
18. The condition where sperm production is stopped or impaired is called:
a) Sterility
b) Infertility
c) Erectile dysfunction
d) Oogenesis
Answer: b) Infertility
19. The hormone that maintains pregnancy by inhibiting uterine contractions is:
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Oxytocin
d) Testosterone
Answer: b) Progesterone
20. The process of formation of the egg (ovum) in females is known as:
a) Oogenesis
b) Spermatogenesis
c) Fertilization
d) Ovulation
Answer: a) Oogenesis
---
CHAPTER 3
for Class 12 Biology:
1. The main objective of reproductive health is:
a) Preventing sexually transmitted diseases
b) Ensuring safe reproduction
c) Promoting maternal and child health
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
2. What does the term "family planning" refer to?
a) The use of contraception to limit family size
b) Giving birth to as many children as possible
c) Teaching about puberty
d) Giving birth without any medical assistance
Answer: a) The use of contraception to limit family size
3. The barrier method of contraception includes:
a) Intrauterine devices (IUDs)
b) Pills
c) Condoms
d) Injectables
Answer: c) Condoms
4. The surgical method of contraception that involves cutting and sealing the fallopian tubes is called:
a) Vasectomy
b) Tubectomy
c) IUD insertion
d) Hysterectomy
Answer: b) Tubectomy
5. The most commonly used method of contraception in India is:
a) Condom
b) Oral contraceptive pills
c) IUDs
d) Female sterilization
Answer: c) IUDs
6. The main purpose of maternal health care is to:
a) Ensure the health of the mother during pregnancy
b) Promote healthy child development
c) Prevent abortion
d) Both a and b
Answer: d) Both a and b
7. The spread of HIV/AIDS is mainly through:
a) Air
b) Water
c) Blood and sexual contact
d) Touching and shaking hands
Answer: c) Blood and sexual contact
8. The most common sexually transmitted disease (STD) in India is:
a) HIV/AIDS
b) Syphilis
c) Gonorrhea
d) Chlamydia
Answer: a) HIV/AIDS
9. Which of the following methods of contraception does not involve any surgical procedure?
a) Vasectomy
b) Tubectomy
c) Oral contraceptive pills
d) Both a and b
Answer: c) Oral contraceptive pills
10. In vitro fertilization (IVF) is an example of:
a) Artificial insemination
b) Assisted reproductive technology
c) Family planning
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Assisted reproductive technology
11. Which of the following is a non-barrier method of contraception?
a) Diaphragm
b) Condom
c) Oral contraceptive pills
d) Spermicides
Answer: c) Oral contraceptive pills
12. The contraceptive method that prevents ovulation by inhibiting the release of LH and FSH is:
a) IUD
b) Oral contraceptive pills
c) Condoms
d) Surgical sterilization
Answer: b) Oral contraceptive pills
13. Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) can be prevented by:
a) Safe sexual practices
b) Avoiding multiple sexual partners
c) Using condoms during sexual activity
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
14. The abortion method in which the pregnancy is terminated by surgical intervention is known as:
a) Medical abortion
b) Therapeutic abortion
c) Induced abortion
d) Spontaneous abortion
Answer: b) Therapeutic abortion
15. The best time for family planning is:
a) Before marriage
b) During pregnancy
c) After childbirth
d) Any time in reproductive age
Answer: d) Any time in reproductive age
16. The method of contraception in which a small device is placed inside the uterus is called:
a) IUD (Intrauterine Device)
b) Diaphragm
c) Condoms
d) Spermicides
Answer: a) IUD (Intrauterine Device)
17. A person is said to be infertile when:
a) He or she cannot conceive after one year of unprotected sexual intercourse
b) He or she has multiple sexual partners
c) He or she is infected with an STD
d) He or she cannot reproduce after reaching puberty
Answer: a) He or she cannot conceive after one year of unprotected sexual intercourse
18. The use of hormonal injections to prevent pregnancy is:
a) Oral contraceptive pills
b) Intrauterine devices
c) Injectable contraceptives
d) Permanent sterilization
Answer: c) Injectable contraceptives
19. Which of the following is a long-acting reversible contraceptive method?
a) Male condom
b) Female condom
c) IUD
d) Oral contraceptive pills
Answer: c) IUD
20. Which method of contraception prevents both conception and sexually transmitted diseases?
a) Condom
b) Oral contraceptive pills
c) Sterilization
d) IUDs
Answer: a) Condom
....
Here are 20 MCQs related to the chapter "Principles of Inheritance and Variation" for Class 12 Biology:
1. Mendel's law of inheritance is based on the principle of:
a) Blending inheritance
b) Dominance and recessiveness
c) Incomplete dominance
d) Codominance
Answer: b) Dominance and recessiveness
2. The term "genotype" refers to:
a) The external appearance of an organism
b) The genetic constitution of an organism
c) The environmental factors affecting an organism
d) The expression of a particular trait
Answer: b) The genetic constitution of an organism
3. The physical expression of an organism’s genotype is its:
a) Genotype
b) Phenotype
c) Allele
d) Trait
Answer: b) Phenotype
4. Which of the following is an example of a homozygous genotype?
a) Aa
b) AA
c) Aa and Aa
d) Aa and aa
Answer: b) AA
5. The gene responsible for determining the flower color in pea plants is located on:
a) Chromosome 1
b) Chromosome 2
c) Chromosome 7
d) Chromosome 3
Answer: c) Chromosome 7
6. Mendel's experiment with pea plants involved the study of traits like:
a) Flower color
b) Seed shape
c) Pod color
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
7. A cross between two individuals with identical genotype produces:
a) 100% heterozygous offspring
b) 50% homozygous offspring
c) 100% homozygous offspring
d) 100% offspring of a uniform genotype
Answer: d) 100% offspring of a uniform genotype
8. In a dihybrid cross, the ratio of phenotypes in F2 generation is:
a) 3:1
b) 1:1
c) 9:3:3:1
d) 1:2:1
Answer: c) 9:3:3:1
9. Which of the following is an example of incomplete dominance?
a) Red and white flowers producing pink flowers
b) A tall plant and a short plant producing a tall plant
c) A blue and red bird producing a purple bird
d) A flower with a dominant red color
Answer: a) Red and white flowers producing pink flowers
10. The law of independent assortment states that:
a) Alleles of different genes assort independently during gamete formation
b) Alleles of the same gene assort independently
c) Dominant alleles are inherited more frequently
d) Gametes carry multiple alleles
Answer: a) Alleles of different genes assort independently during gamete formation
11. The process of crossing-over occurs during:
a) Prophase I of meiosis
b) Metaphase I of meiosis
c) Anaphase I of meiosis
d) Telophase II of meiosis
Answer: a) Prophase I of meiosis
12. The condition in which both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype is called:
a) Codominance
b) Incomplete dominance
c) Complete dominance
d) Epistasis
Answer: a) Codominance
13. If a homozygous tall pea plant (TT) is crossed with a homozygous short pea plant (tt), what will be the genotype of the F1 generation?
a) Tt
b) TT
c) Tt and tt
d) tt
Answer: a) Tt
14. The phenomenon in which one gene controls the expression of another gene is known as:
a) Dominance
b) Epistasis
c) Pleiotropy
d) Linkage
Answer: b) Epistasis
15. A carrier individual for a sex-linked recessive trait has the genotype:
a) XX
b) XY
c) X^A X^a
d) X^A Y
Answer: c) X^A X^a
16. The offspring produced in a monohybrid cross exhibit a phenotypic ratio of:
a) 1:1
b) 3:1
c) 9:3:3:1
d) 1:2:1
Answer: b) 3:1
17. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant producing pink-flowered plants is an example of:
a) Codominance
b) Incomplete dominance
c) Mendelian inheritance
d) Gene linkage
Answer: b) Incomplete dominance
18. A test cross is performed to:
a) Determine the genotype of a plant with a dominant phenotype
b) Determine the genotype of a plant with a recessive phenotype
c) Study the inheritance of sex-linked traits
d) Study incomplete dominance
Answer: a) Determine the genotype of a plant with a dominant phenotype
19. The discovery of linked genes was made by:
a) Mendel
b) Morgan
c) Darwin
d) Watson and Crick
Answer: b) Morgan
20. Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?
a) Height in humans
b) Eye color in humans
c) ABO blood group
d) Sickle cell anemia
Answer: a) Height in Human
......
Molecular Basis of Inheritance for Class 12 Biology:
1. The genetic material in a cell is primarily composed of:
a) RNA
b) DNA
c) Proteins
d) Lipids
Answer: b) DNA
2. Which of the following is the shape of the DNA molecule?
a) Linear
b) Double helix
c) Triple helix
d) Circular
Answer: b) Double helix
3. The basic unit of DNA is:
a) Nucleotide
b) Amino acid
c) Fatty acid
d) Monosaccharide
Answer: a) Nucleotide
4. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is found in DNA?
a) Thymine
b) Uracil
c) Cytosine
d) Both a and c
Answer: d) Both a and c
5. The process by which RNA is synthesized from a DNA template is called:
a) Replication
b) Transcription
c) Translation
d) Mutation
Answer: b) Transcription
6. The enzyme responsible for synthesizing the RNA strand is:
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
c) Ligase
d) Helicase
Answer: b) RNA polymerase
7. Which of the following is true about the genetic code?
a) It is universal
b) It is degenerate
c) It is unambiguous
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
8. In DNA replication, the enzyme that adds nucleotides to the growing DNA strand is:
a) Helicase
b) Ligase
c) DNA polymerase
d) RNA polymerase
Answer: c) DNA polymerase
9. The site of protein synthesis in the cell is:
a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Ribosome
d) Golgi apparatus
Answer: c) Ribosome
10. Which type of RNA carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosome for protein synthesis?
a) tRNA
b) mRNA
c) rRNA
d) snRNA
Answer: b) mRNA
11. The process by which mRNA is decoded into a specific polypeptide chain is called:
a) Replication
b) Transcription
c) Translation
d) Splicing
Answer: c) Translation
12. Which of the following codons is a start codon for protein synthesis?
a) UGA
b) UAA
c) AUG
d) UAG
Answer: c) AUG
13. Which of the following is not involved in translation?
a) mRNA
b) tRNA
c) DNA
d) Ribosome
Answer: c) DNA
14. The central dogma of molecular biology states that genetic information flows from:
a) DNA → RNA → Protein
b) RNA → DNA → Protein
c) DNA → Protein → RNA
d) Protein → RNA → DNA
Answer: a) DNA → RNA → Protein
15. A change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is known as:
a) Mutation
b) Replication
c) Translation
d) Transcription
Answer: a) Mutation
16. In the double helix structure of DNA, the two strands are held together by:
a) Covalent bonds
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Ionic bonds
d) Disulfide bonds
Answer: b) Hydrogen bonds
17. The region of the mRNA that is translated into protein is called the:
a) Exons
b) Introns
c) Codons
d) Anticodons
Answer: a) Exons
18. The term "semi-conservative replication" refers to:
a) Both strands of DNA are replicated
b) One strand of the new DNA is from the original template and the other is newly synthesized
c) Only one strand is replicated
d) DNA is replicated conservatively
Answer: b) One strand of the new DNA is from the original template and the other is newly synthesized
19. In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the:
a) Cytoplasm
b) Nucleus
c) Mitochondria
d) Ribosomes
Answer: b) Nucleus
20. The function of the enzyme ligase in DNA replication is to:
a) Unwind the DNA strands
b) Synthesize RNA primers
c) Join the Okazaki fragments
d) Add nucleotides to the growing DNA strand
Answer: c) Join the Okazaki fragments
.......
Here are 20 MCQs related to the chapter "Evolution" for Class 12 Biology:
1. The concept of “natural selection” was introduced by:
a) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
b) Charles Darwin
c) Gregor Mendel
d) Alfred Russel Wallace
Answer: b) Charles Darwin
2. The process by which individuals with traits better suited to their environment survive and reproduce is called:
a) Mutation
b) Genetic drift
c) Natural selection
d) Gene flow
Answer: c) Natural selection
3. Which of the following is an example of adaptive radiation?
a) Evolution of similar traits in unrelated species
b) Evolution of diverse forms from a common ancestor
c) Evolution of resistance to pesticides
d) Formation of new species in the same environment
Answer: b) Evolution of diverse forms from a common ancestor
4. The term “fitness” in the context of natural selection refers to:
a) The physical strength of an organism
b) The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce
c) The number of offspring produced
d) The size of the organism
Answer: b) The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce
5. Which of the following is the evidence for the theory of evolution?
a) Fossil records
b) Homologous structures
c) Embryological evidence
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
6. The human tailbone (coccyx) is an example of:
a) Homologous structure
b) Vestigial organ
c) Adaptive radiation
d) Analogous structure
Answer: b) Vestigial organ
7. The process of evolution in which a single species evolves into different forms to adapt to different environments is called:
a) Convergent evolution
b) Divergent evolution
c) Parallel evolution
d) Coevolution
Answer: b) Divergent evolution
8. The major difference between artificial selection and natural selection is:
a) Artificial selection involves human intervention
b) Natural selection occurs in controlled environments
c) Artificial selection leads to extinction
d) Natural selection produces more variation
Answer: a) Artificial selection involves human intervention
9. The peppered moth in England is an example of:
a) Genetic drift
b) Natural selection
c) Migration
d) Mutation
Answer: b) Natural selection
10. Which of the following would be considered the strongest evidence for evolution?
a) Fossils
b) Behavioral patterns
c) Molecular evidence
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
11. The fossil of the “Archaeopteryx” is an example of:
a) Transitional fossil
b) Homologous structure
c) Vestigial organ
d) Adaptive radiation
Answer: a) Transitional fossil
12. According to the theory of Lamarckism, the giraffes’ long neck evolved because:
a) The neck of the ancestral giraffes was short
b) Giraffes stretched their necks to reach higher branches
c) Giraffes with long necks survived better
d) Giraffes inherited long necks from their parents
Answer: b) Giraffes stretched their necks to reach higher branches
13. The occurrence of similar structures in different species due to convergent evolution is called:
a) Homology
b) Analogy
c) Divergence
d) Mutation
Answer: b) Analogy
14. The evidence for evolution from molecular biology comes from:
a) Fossils
b) Comparative anatomy
c) DNA sequencing
d) Embryology
Answer: c) DNA sequencing
15. Which of the following is an example of a homologous structure?
a) The wing of a bat and the flipper of a whale
b) The eye of a human and the eye of an octopus
c) The beak of a hummingbird and the beak of a sparrow
d) All of the above
Answer: a) The wing of a bat and the flipper of a whale
16. The process in which two species influence each other's evolution through mutual interaction is known as:
a) Natural selection
b) Coevolution
c) Genetic drift
d) Adaptive radiation
Answer: b) Coevolution
17. According to the theory of punctuated equilibrium, evolution occurs:
a) Gradually and continuously
b) In spurts, followed by long periods of stasis
c) As a result of genetic drift
d) Exclusively in isolated populations
Answer: b) In spurts, followed by long periods of stasis
18. Which of the following is a result of genetic drift?
a) Non-random changes in gene frequencies in a population
b) Evolution of species due to natural selection
c) Accumulation of beneficial mutations
d) All of the above
Answer: a) Non-random changes in gene frequencies in a population
19. The concept of “descent with modification” was first proposed by:
a) Lamarck
b) Darwin
c) Mendel
d) Wallace
Answer: b) Darwin
20. The primary force driving evolutionary change in the process of natural selection is:
a) Genetic mutations
b) Genetic recombination
c) Environmental pressure
d) All of the above
Answer: c) Environmental pressure
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Here are 20 MCQs related to the chapter "Human Health and Disease" for Class 12 Biology:
1. The causative agent of tuberculosis is:
a) Bacteria
b) Virus
c) Fungus
d) Protozoa
Answer: a) Bacteria
2. Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of insulin?
a) Hypertension
b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Malaria
d) Tuberculosis
Answer: b) Diabetes mellitus
3. The primary method of transmission of HIV is:
a) Airborne
b) Direct contact with contaminated blood
c) Through saliva
d) Through contaminated water
Answer: b) Direct contact with contaminated blood
4. Which of the following is a vector of the malaria-causing parasite Plasmodium?
a) Housefly
b) Anopheles mosquito
c) Culex mosquito
d) Aedes mosquito
Answer: b) Anopheles mosquito
5. Which type of immunity is provided by vaccines?
a) Active immunity
b) Passive immunity
c) Artificial immunity
d) Both a and c
Answer: d) Both a and c
6. The primary function of interferons in the immune response is to:
a) Destroy pathogens directly
b) Stimulate the production of antibodies
c) Inhibit viral replication
d) Activate T-cells
Answer: c) Inhibit viral replication
7. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
a) Malaria
b) Tuberculosis
c) Hepatitis B
d) Cholera
Answer: c) Hepatitis B
8. The deficiency of which vitamin causes scurvy?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
Answer: c) Vitamin C
9. Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease (STD)?
a) Syphilis
b) Gonorrhea
c) Tuberculosis
d) HIV/AIDS
Answer: c) Tuberculosis
10. The term "pathogen" refers to:
a) Any organism that harms the host
b) Any organism that is beneficial to the host
c) The immune system of the body
d) The mechanism of disease transmission
Answer: a) Any organism that harms the host
11. Which of the following is a non-communicable disease?
a) Hepatitis
b) Cancer
c) Tuberculosis
d) Influenza
Answer: b) Cancer
12. Which of the following is a chronic disease caused by the accumulation of fatty deposits in the arteries?
a) Diabetes
b) Coronary artery disease
c) Tuberculosis
d) Hepatitis
Answer: b) Coronary artery disease
13. The primary role of macrophages in immunity is to:
a) Produce antibodies
b) Phagocytize pathogens
c) Activate helper T-cells
d) Produce interferons
Answer: b) Phagocytize pathogens
14. Which of the following is a bacterial disease?
a) Malaria
b) Tuberculosis
c) Smallpox
d) Influenza
Answer: b) Tuberculosis
15. Which of the following is true about HIV?
a) It is transmitted only through sexual contact
b) It attacks the body’s T-cells
c) It can be cured with antibiotics
d) It is caused by a bacterium
Answer: b) It attacks the body’s T-cells
16. Which of the following is a symptom of dengue fever?
a) Coughing and sore throat
b) Severe headache and muscle pain
c) Diarrhea
d) Joint pain and rash
Answer: b) Severe headache and muscle pain
17. Which disease is caused by a deficiency of iodine?
a) Rickets
b) Goiter
c) Scurvy
d) Pellagra
Answer: b) Goiter
18. The disease caused by the consumption of contaminated water is:
a) Malaria
b) Tuberculosis
c) Cholera
d) AIDS
Answer: c) Cholera
19. The immune response that provides long-term protection against infections is:
a) Innate immunity
b) Adaptive immunity
c) Passive immunity
d) Both a and b
Answer: b) Adaptive immunity
20. Which of the following is true about cancer?
a) It is caused by viruses only
b) It involves uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells
c) It is a communicable disease
d) It can only affect certain organs
Answer: b) It involves uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells
---
Here are 20 MCQs related to the chapter "Microbes in Human Welfare" for Class 12 Biology:
1. The process of fermentation is carried out by which type of microbes?
a) Bacteria
b) Fungi
c) Viruses
d) Protozoa
Answer: a) Bacteria
2. Which of the following microorganisms is used in the production of curd?
a) Lactobacillus
b) Saccharomyces
c) Streptococcus
d) Aspergillus
Answer: a) Lactobacillus
3. Which of the following is an example of a microorganism used in the production of alcoholic beverages?
a) Aspergillus
b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
c) Penicillium
d) Bacillus subtilis
Answer: b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
4. The microorganism used for the production of antibiotics is:
a) Rhizobium
b) Streptomyces
c) Clostridium
d) Lactobacillus
Answer: b) Streptomyces
5. Which of the following microorganisms is used in the preparation of bread?
a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
b) Rhizobium
c) Aspergillus
d) Lactobacillus
Answer: a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
6. The nitrogen-fixing bacterium found in the root nodules of leguminous plants is:
a) Nitrosomonas
b) Rhizobium
c) Azotobacter
d) Nitrobacter
Answer: b) Rhizobium
7. Which of the following microorganisms is responsible for the fermentation of milk to form curd?
a) Saccharomyces
b) Lactobacillus
c) Streptococcus
d) Penicillium
Answer: b) Lactobacillus
8. Which of the following processes is used to make alcoholic beverages like beer and wine?
a) Photosynthesis
b) Fermentation
c) Respiration
d) Transpiration
Answer: b) Fermentation
9. The bacterium Rhizobium is beneficial for plants because it:
a) Fixes nitrogen
b) Helps in phosphorus absorption
c) Produces organic matter
d) Produces oxygen
Answer: a) Fixes nitrogen
10. Which of the following is used in the bioremediation process?
a) Microorganisms
b) Bacteria
c) Fungi
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
11. Which of the following is used as a biopesticide in agriculture?
a) Bacillus thuringiensis
b) Penicillium
c) Streptomyces
d) Aspergillus
Answer: a) Bacillus thuringiensis
12. Which of the following is the role of microorganisms in sewage treatment?
a) Decomposing organic matter
b) Oxygen production
c) Nitrogen fixation
d) Nitrogen absorption
Answer: a) Decomposing organic matter
13. Microorganisms that are used in the production of insulin are:
a) Bacteria
b) Viruses
c) Fungi
d) Algae
Answer: a) Bacteria
14. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in the production of curd?
a) Adding bacteria → Incubation → Fermentation → Milk
b) Milk → Adding bacteria → Incubation → Fermentation
c) Milk → Fermentation → Adding bacteria → Incubation
d) Adding bacteria → Milk → Incubation → Fermentation
Answer: b) Milk → Adding bacteria → Incubation → Fermentation
15. The microorganism used in the production of vinegar is:
a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
b) Acetobacter
c) Rhizobium
d) Aspergillus niger
Answer: b) Acetobacter
16. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus, but is treated with microbial products?
a) Tuberculosis
b) Hepatitis B
c) Influenza
d) HIV/AIDS
Answer: b) Hepatitis B
17. Which of the following is a method used to preserve food using microbes?
a) Pasteurization
b) Freezing
c) Fermentation
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
18. Which of the following microbes is involved in the production of alcoholic drinks like wine?
a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
b) Lactobacillus
c) Rhizobium
d) Aspergillus niger
Answer: a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
19. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is commonly used as:
a) A biocontrol agent for pests
b) A nitrogen-fixing bacterium
c) A yeast for baking
d) A pathogen for plants
Answer: a) A biocontrol agent for pests
20. The process in which microorganisms degrade harmful chemicals is called:
a) Bioremediation
b) Fermentation
c) Bioluminescence
d) Nitrogen fixation
Answer: a) Bioremediation
-.....
Here are 20 MCQs related to the chapter "Biotechnology Principles and Processes" for Class 12 Biology:
1. Which of the following is the first step in the process of genetic engineering?
a) Cloning
b) Gene isolation
c) Transformation
d) Gene amplification
Answer: b) Gene isolation
2. The enzyme used to cut DNA molecules at specific locations is called:
a) Ligase
b) Polymerase
c) Restriction endonuclease
d) RNA polymerase
Answer: c) Restriction endonuclease
3. Which of the following is used as a vector in genetic engineering?
a) Plasmid
b) Ribosome
c) Virus
d) Both a and c
Answer: d) Both a and c
4. The process of transferring recombinant DNA into a host cell is known as:
a) Transformation
b) Transduction
c) Transfection
d) Translation
Answer: a) Transformation
5. Which of the following is not a vector used in genetic engineering?
a) Plasmids
b) Viruses
c) Phage
d) Antibodies
Answer: d) Antibodies
6. The first genetically modified organism (GMO) was:
a) Bacteria
b) Yeast
c) Mouse
d) Plant
Answer: a) Bacteria
7. The enzyme that joins the sticky ends of the DNA is:
a) DNA ligase
b) DNA polymerase
c) RNA ligase
d) Reverse transcriptase
Answer: a) DNA ligase
8. The process of making multiple copies of a gene or DNA sequence is called:
a) Cloning
b) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
c) Transformation
d) Gene editing
Answer: b) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
9. Which of the following is used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
a) DNA polymerase
b) Taq polymerase
c) RNA polymerase
d) Both a and b
Answer: b) Taq polymerase
10. The process by which a foreign gene is inserted into a plant to produce a genetically modified crop is called:
a) Gene editing
b) Hybridization
c) Transgenesis
d) Cloning
Answer: c) Transgenesis
11. In genetic engineering, a recombinant plasmid is created by:
a) Cutting the plasmid with a restriction enzyme
b) Inserting the gene of interest
c) Using DNA ligase to join the DNA fragment
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
12. The process of transferring foreign DNA into the host using a bacterium is called:
a) Agrobacterium-mediated transformation
b) Electrotransformation
c) Viral transformation
d) Both a and b
Answer: a) Agrobacterium-mediated transformation
13. Which of the following is the most common application of recombinant DNA technology?
a) Human insulin production
b) Gene therapy
c) Cloning of animals
d) Creation of genetically modified crops
Answer: a) Human insulin production
14. The technique used to insert a gene into a plant cell by using a gene gun is called:
a) Biolistics
b) Electroporation
c) Microinjection
d) Heat shock
Answer: a) Biolistics
15. Which of the following is a key feature of a plasmid vector?
a) Small size
b) Ability to replicate independently
c) Multiple cloning sites
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
16. The plant Bt cotton is genetically modified to resist:
a) Pests
b) Herbicides
c) Drought
d) Salt
Answer: a) Pests
17. Which of the following is the final product obtained by the fermentation process in genetic engineering?
a) Recombinant proteins
b) Gene products
c) Cloned organisms
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
18. The first human protein produced by recombinant DNA technology was:
a) Human growth hormone
b) Human insulin
c) Interferons
d) Hemoglobin
Answer: b) Human insulin
19. Which of the following is a key component of PCR?
a) DNA polymerase
b) DNA template
c) Nucleotide primers
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
20. Which technique is used to separate DNA fragments according to their size?
a) Gel electrophoresis
b) PCR
c) Southern blotting
d) Northern blotting
Here are 20 MCQs related to the chapter "Biodiversity and Conservation" for Class 12 Biology:
1. Biodiversity is defined as:
a) The variety of life forms
b) The total number of species
c) The genetic variation within species
d) The ecological diversity in an area
Answer: a) The variety of life forms
2. Which of the following is the primary cause of loss of biodiversity?
a) Natural disasters
b) Deforestation
c) Human activities
d) Overhunting
Answer: c) Human activities
3. Which of the following is an example of in-situ conservation?
a) Establishment of zoos
b) Seed banks
c) National parks
d) Botanical gardens
Answer: c) National parks
4. The term "Endangered species" refers to species that:
a) Have been declared extinct
b) Are at risk of becoming extinct in the near future
c) Are found in limited geographic regions
d) Are abundant in number
Answer: b) Are at risk of becoming extinct in the near future
5. The Red Data Book is published by:
a) United Nations
b) World Health Organization (WHO)
c) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
d) Government of India
Answer: c) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
6. Which of the following is a method of ex-situ conservation?
a) Biosphere reserves
b) Wildlife sanctuaries
c) Zoos
d) Sacred groves
Answer: c) Zoos
7. "Biodiversity Hotspots" are regions that:
a) Have high biodiversity and are under threat
b) Have low biodiversity but are rich in endemic species
c) Are protected areas with no human activity
d) Are cold desert regions
Answer: a) Have high biodiversity and are under threat
8. The largest biodiversity in the world is found in:
a) Deserts
b) Tropical rainforests
c) Grasslands
d) Marine ecosystems
Answer: b) Tropical rainforests
9. The 'Convention on Biological Diversity' was held in:
a) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
b) Paris, France
c) Kyoto, Japan
d) New York, USA
Answer: a) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
10. Which of the following is NOT a threat to biodiversity?
a) Habitat destruction
b) Pollution
c) Natural disasters
d) Climate change
Answer: c) Natural disasters
11. The term "biodiversity" includes:
a) Genetic diversity
b) Species diversity
c) Ecological diversity
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
12. Which of the following is a characteristic of biodiversity hotspots?
a) They cover large areas
b) They have a large number of endemic species
c) They have no threat from human activity
d) They are located only in developed countries
Answer: b) They have a large number of endemic species
13. The conservation approach that involves protecting natural habitats is called:
a) Ex-situ conservation
b) In-situ conservation
c) Genetic conservation
d) Species-specific conservation
Answer: b) In-situ conservation
14. The primary cause of the extinction of species is:
a) Overexploitation
b) Habitat loss
c) Predation
d) Disease
Answer: b) Habitat loss
15. Which of the following species is listed as "Critically Endangered" by the IUCN?
a) Bengal Tiger
b) Asiatic Lion
c) Indian Peafowl
d) Great Indian Bustard
Answer: d) Great Indian Bustard
16. The term "biodiversity conservation" refers to:
a) The destruction of species
b) The reduction of species numbers
c) The preservation of biodiversity
d) The introduction of exotic species
Answer: c) The preservation of biodiversity
17. The major aim of the 'Wildlife Protection Act, 1972' in India is to:
a) Prevent illegal hunting of animals
b) Prevent deforestation
c) Establish protected areas
d) Promote ecological balance
Answer: a) Prevent illegal hunting of animals
18. "Sacred groves" refer to:
a) Forests conserved by local communities for religious reasons
b) Protected areas designated by the government
c) Zoos and botanical gardens
d) Artificial forests planted for commercial purposes
Answer: a) Forests conserved by local communities for religious reasons
19. Which of the following is the main function of biodiversity in an ecosystem?
a) Regulation of climate
b) Provision of aesthetic value
c) Prevention of soil erosion
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
20. The "Chipko movement" is related to:
a) Conservation of water
b) Conservation of wildlife
c) Afforestation and tree conservation
d) Pollution control
Answer: c) Afforestation and tree conservation
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